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Perhaps I was not specific enough in my prefacing... However, I never suggested nor recommended injecting with an alcohol based suspension. I simply asked if injection (regardless of suspension/solution) would not permit closer 1:1 results as compared to clinical studies where injection was used.

Would it not be more representative of what ACTUAL research on this compound has been able to demonstrate? To my knowledge, the primary study behind this compound specifically used INJECTIONS for administration.

While his execution was highly flawed, why does everyone act like the mere idea of injecting this (or any other) compound is an immediate "no-go"?? And with such confidence!