When taking multiple versions of SARMs while on testosterone therapy, at what point do androgen receptors become saturated? From an anabolic-androgenic point of view wouldn’t we want more receptors available for testosterone as that hormone is more effective than SARMs? Do receptors treat these compounds preferentially, meaning would a receptor be more likely to utilize testosterone over a SARM or is it first come first serve? At what point would the system be overloaded and not able to utilize any of these compounds at the same time thus flushing them from the system? Sorry for the bombardment of questions. Becoming over curious.